Friday, November 19, 2010

Reflections on the Slick-Barker debate

Matt Slick and Dan Barker recently debated the topic "Is There Reason to Be Good Without God?"

Around the 1 hour, 1 minute mark, the first cross-examination period contained the following exchanges:

Exchange 1
Barker: Could you succinctly, in one sentence or less, define the word "good"?

Slick: Well, I would theologically and as a Christian, I would say it's worth exploring more. Good is that which is in compliance and conformity with the nature of God.

B: So it's obedience to His nature and commands, basically. What He says.

S: Well, obedience to a nature isn't the issue. Obedience to the command would be. But I would say goodness is based on the very nature of what God is.

B: So people who obey and follow whatever God says, they are good people and people who do not are bad people, regardless of the consequences in the real world, your standard is judging...good by what God says is good. Am I clear on that ?

S: Well we're not saying that God just arbitrarily declares sthg good.

B: I don't care if He does it arbitrary or not. Whatever His reasons are, that's your standard.

S: His reasons lie in His own nature and essence.
B: OK, well, whatever they are.

A few notes:
-While I think Slick came out the clear victor in this debate, he lost his way in a puzzling manner more than twice.  This is one of those times.  What is "it's worth exploring more" supposed to mean?  It's been explored, a lot; I'd've wished Slick might have prepared a bit more beforehand on that count. 
-Slick could have been clearer on the relationship of God's nature as that from which the command flows. He commands X because X is in accord with His nature.  If He hadn't commanded X, X would still be objectively good, but nobody else would know that b/c He hadn't communicated it to anyone.  And we sort of are, actually, saying that God arbitrarily declares something good, in a sense anyway.  He's The Arbiter; there's no higher standard to which He appeals.  He decided/decides what is good and that's it - it's good.  I wish Slick would have said that and then continued to expose the emptiness of the alternative that Barker was offering.
-Barker makes a lot of money and a name for himself for being an apostatised preacher, yet he demonstrates very little understanding of a solid biblical view of things. This is one of those times, and it's amazing how this topic is so fundamental to the Christian message! The man claims to have preached countless times at revivals, been a full-time evangelist, done crusades, etc.  James White, commenting at times on Barker and even face to face with Barker in debate, has expressed doubt that Barker ever preached, or even knew, what the Reformedigelicals would call "the Gospel", and this is more evidence that he never did and still doesn't.  Specifically, note that he said, "people who obey and follow whatever God says, they are good people and people who do not are bad people".
What?!??!   Could Barker really be so clueless as not to know that biblical doctrine is that NO PEOPLE are good?  The question is terrible and unhelpful. The correct answer is:  "You claim to be a former preacher; how could you have forgotten Romans 3, the first part of preaching the central message of Jesus?  Nobody is good, none seeks after God, no, not one.  People do good and bad things, so to answer the question you were weakly trying to ask, yes, obeying and following what God says is good in and of itself.  And obviously, part of the analysis is gauging, as you put it, 'consequences in the real world', but again w/o a standard to know whether those consequences are themselves good or bad, which you don't have outside of an arbitrary Barkeristic one, you're still stuck unless someone bridges the Is/Ought gap with a normative command."  
All that to say, the evidence that Barker ever had very little more than a superficial understanding of the Bible is strong.  He is a liar and a bit of a fraud. 

Exchange 2
Barker: Define the word "ought".
Slick: Sthg you should do.
B Isn't 'should' a synonym for 'ought'?
S: Yeah, that's why you really ought to belive that definition is true.   ::Laughter:
B: Well if ought and should are synonyms, then what are those synonyms referring to? What does "ought" actually mean?
S: That's interesting, b/c I've got this quote from you..."if you ever get into a situation where you're stumped, over your head, or out of ideas and can't think of a way to loop the argument around, then there's always the appropriate tactic of backing up and making the person define his terms" (Losing Faith In Faith, p 113).
I'm gonna assume you're backed up b/c you can't define good rationally.
B: ...I've been asked to ask you these things. It doesn't mean I'm stumped.

Slick goes on to partially whiff on the definition of "ought/should", as he goes on to naïvely throw in, "If I love my wife, then...", which was walking right into Barker's cannon fire. I suppose this is a time when I will (appropriately, since we're so near to Thanksgiving) express gratitude to and for the various skeptics who have engaged me over the course of many comboxes - their questions and challenges have forced me to think this issue through. It does not appear that Slick has, as he got caught at precisely the point where he should have been prepared to stick a fork in Barker by asking just one or two more questions.
What Slick should've said is found here, basically. We ought to do what God has commanded, b/c what God commands is objectively good by definition, in and of itself. The OUTWORKINGS of such is where the "if, then" statements come in - that's step 2. Barker's "if, then" also is step 2; Slick should have zeroed in better on Barker's assumed step 1 (the definition: "that which minimises harm is good") and camped there the entire debate. Slick did do that at times, and Barker had no answer except to make emotional appeals to the crowd and argumenta ad populum. "If, then" statements are useless for DEFINING such things as "ought/should", though, b/c obviously it doesn't tell us whether the if-action is good, much less whether the then-consequence is good. It's merely another exercise of the naturalistic fallacy. Slick, to his credit, pointed that out numerous times in the debate, though it would've been nice if he had named it and cited Hume, he who also a priori rejected the miraculous b/c of his naturalistic presuppositions, as its originator, just to stick it to the naturalistic atheist Barker.

Anyway, I also bring this exchange up b/c it illustrates how airheaded Barker often is. He didn't just toss out the statement about "(if you're) stumped...mak(e) the person define his terms" in a debate cross-examination question. No, he wrote it in his book, which has now gone through at least one revision since its original publishing. What a ridiculous thing to say! Defining terms is perhaps the most important tactic in debate, for the edification of all. This seems to stem from the common skeptical viewpoint where the skeptic/Christian or atheist/theist debate centers around facts and not presuppositions. Creationism, for example - Creationists argue there's a set of facts, and we are trying to explain the facts via the narrative we support. Darwinians like to argue instead that "you have no facts", which is idiocy. Nobody "has" facts. Facts exist; how we explain them, for which worldview they are evidence in support - those are the questions. Sometimes, though, the skeptics will accidentally grant the obvious, thus exposing their more-common objections and complaints as mere chicanery, smokescreening, and gamesmanship.

Barker should know this, but I'd struggle to find any evidence that he's ever thought this deeply about the situation, despite being confronted with it numerous times in public debates. It's illuminating as to why he remains an atheist, though - if you don't think deeply about such things, then I'd certainly expect you to be an atheist.

224 comments:

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Coram Deo said...
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Coram Deo said...

Paul C.,

If you told me that you preferred chocolate ice cream over other flavors, and I recoiled in disgust and told you that based on your public profession of preference for chocolate ice cream that I found you to be an insufferably vile, and deeply disturbed man would that strike you as a bizarre overreation on my part?

What if I refused to believe that you preferred chocolate ice cream and began compiling statistical evidence that vanilla ice cream is preferred above chocolate ice cream, and attempted to convince you that you are self-deceived and really don't prefer chocolate ice cream after all? In your opinion would that seem like a generally profitable, and productive way to spend my time?

In Him,
CD

Paul C said...

Hi CD, that's brilliant and everything, but unfortunately has nothing to do with the question that I asked you that unfortunately appears to have been stuck in the spam filter. What metric do you suggest that I use to determine which of the many competing Christian interpretations of the Bible is the correct one?

Paul C said...

p.s. are you claiming that in a Christian worldview, interpretations of the Bible are equivalent to preferences for ice cream flavours? How odd!

Coram Deo said...

Hi CD, that's brilliant and everything, but unfortunately has nothing to do with the question that I asked you that unfortunately appears to have been stuck in the spam filter. What metric do you suggest that I use to determine which of the many competing Christian interpretations of the Bible is the correct one?

p.s. are you claiming that in a Christian worldview, interpretations of the Bible are equivalent to preferences for ice cream flavours? How odd!


Close again.

Actually my silly [not brilliant] analogy deals directly with your question.

To wit, as a Christian I [and Rho] have vested interests in the subjects of Biblical interpretation and Christian epistemology, morality, ethics, etc. since I [and Rho] really, truly believe.

On the other hand, as an unbeliever [Christ-denier] you have zero vested interest, and do not believe or have any vested interest in either Christianity, or my [or Rho's] religious preferences.

Given these facts from your perspective my preference for one strain of Christianity over another, or over say, Islam, Buddhism, Hinduism, or any other religion ought to be roughly the equivalent of my preference for ice cream flavors.

In other words it matters to me personally, but to you, not so much.

Yet here you sit day after day venting your strong disagreement, displeasure, and general disdain for what from your worldview amounts to my [and Rho's] preferences in ice cream flavor.

If Rho's blog were an adamant defense of his preference for chocolate ice cream over all other flavors would you be camping out here as a regular ridiculing chocolate ice cream, dismissing its sweet influences, arguing that to prefer chocolate ice cream is nonsensical, and pointing out that there are many opinions even among chocolate ice cream lovers about the best formulations and choco-licity of chocolate ice cream; while zeroing in on the particular brand and ingredients of Rho's favorite blend in an unending effort to undermine Rho's claims about its chocolately tongue-pleasing superiority?

Can you see how absurd and yes, obtuse, your actions are from within your own worldview yet?

In Christ,
CD

Paul C said...

Given these facts from your perspective my preference for one strain of Christianity over another, or over say, Islam, Buddhism, Hinduism, or any other religion ought to be roughly the equivalent of my preference for ice cream flavors.

Gosh, you wasted a lot of words there to set up a straw man argument. I don't believe that your religious faith is the equivalent of your preference for ice cream flavors.

Can you see how absurd and yes, obtuse, your actions are from within your own worldview yet?

No, and since you don't appear to have the first idea what my worldview is, I fail to see how you can imagine your comments have any impact.

So, back to my actual question: what metric do you propose I use to decide which of the very many interpretations of the Bible Christians present is the most accurate one?

You can start with an easier question if you want: what metric do you use to decide that your interpretation of the Bible is more accurate than another Christian who doesn't share your specific beliefs?

I mean, you must have some way to tell, right? You can't possibly be using your interpretation of the Bible to judge whether your interpretation of the Bible is correct. That would be... well, silly.

Coram Deo said...

Gosh, you wasted a lot of words there to set up a straw man argument. I don't believe that your religious faith is the equivalent of your preference for ice cream flavors.

What possible difference could it make to you whether I prefer chocolate or vanilla ice cream, or Christianity or Buddhism; and why should I defend either to you?

Why do you care, and why should I, or anyone else care, what you think about my ice cream or religious preferences?

Please be specific.

In Him,
CD

Paul C said...

CD, do you have an answer to my question, or not?

Coram Deo said...

Why should I answer your questions about my preferences? Why would you care? What difference does it make to you?

In Him,
CD

Paul C said...

One last time, then: what metric do you use to decide that your interpretation of the Bible is more accurate than another Christian who doesn't share your specific beliefs?

Either you have one, or you don't. If you do have one, I'd have thought that you want to share it both with other Christians and non-Christians alike, in order to help them come to truth.

But perhaps you don't have any metric at all. That would be funny, wouldn't it? So very, very funny.

Coram Deo said...

Would it be funny to you if I preferred chocolate ice cream over vanilla ice cream? Why or why not?

Would you demand a metric to support my preference of chocolate over vanilla ice cream? Why or why not?

Is my religious preference more important to you than my ice cream preference?

If so, why? If not, why do you keep asking?

In Him,
CD

Paul C said...

I think at this point we can safely assume that you don't have an answer. Thanks anyway.

Coram Deo said...

I think at this point we can safely assume that you don't have an answer. Thanks anyway.

My point exactly!

You have no frame of reference other than your own peculiar, subjective, personal approbation or disapprobation of my preferences for ice cream or religion, which is only meaningful and important to you, and no one else.

You can't begin to explain why your peculiar point of reference should have any meaning outside of your own mind, so you have no answer to my simple questions.

To employ your analogy from earlier in the thread, prayerfully the fair-minded reader will see that emperor Paul C. truly has no clothes.

In Christ,
CD

Paul C said...

You don't seem to realise that I'm asking the question from your perspective, not mine. What metric do *you* use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians?

Coram Deo said...

You don't seem to realise that I'm asking the question from your perspective, not mine. What metric do *you* use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians?

Are you equally interested in my metric to support the accuracy of my personal interpretation that chocolate ice cream is superior to vanilla ice cream, or why I believe my chosen brand of chocolate ice cream is superior to the brand of chocolate ice cream selected by others? Why or why not?

Are my religious metrics more important or meaningful to you than my ice cream metrics?

If so, why? If not, why do you keep asking?

Anyway, why should I answer your questions? Why would you care? What difference does it make to you?

In Him,
CD

Paul C said...

Answers to all your questions:

Are you equally interested in my metric to support the accuracy of my personal interpretation that chocolate ice cream is superior to vanilla ice cream, or why I believe my chosen brand of chocolate ice cream is superior to the brand of chocolate ice cream selected by others?

No, I'm only interested in what metric you use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians.

Why or why not?

Because this discussion is about what metric you use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians.

Are my religious metrics more important or meaningful to you than my ice cream metrics?

Yes, I'm only interested in what metric you use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians.

If so, why?

Because this discussion is about what metric you use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians.

Anyway, why should I answer your questions?

I can offer you no reason why you should answer my single simple question, other than to demonstrate what metric you use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians.

Why would you care? What difference does it make to you?

Why I care and what difference it will make to me is irrelevant to the question of what metric you use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians.

So, now that I've answered all of your questions in full, perhaps you'll do me the courtesy of answering the single question that I posed to you before you started throwing irrelevant questions at me. What metric do you use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians?

Coram Deo said...

Why I care and what difference it will make to me is irrelevant to the question of what metric you use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians.

So, now that I've answered all of your questions in full, perhaps you'll do me the courtesy of answering the single question that I posed to you before you started throwing irrelevant questions at me. What metric do you use to discern the accuracy of your personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians?


I don't agree that this discussion is about what metric I use to discern the accuracy of my personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians.

This discussion is about the fact that as an unbeliever [Christ-denier] you have zero rationale nor reason outside of your own mind to take any more interest in my religious preferences than you do my ice cream preferences.

If you did, presumably you could give at least one.

In Him,
CD

Paul C said...

I don't agree that this discussion is about what metric I use to discern the accuracy of my personal interpretation of the Bible over that presented by other Christians.

Just to recap what this discussion is about: I pointed out that you "have precisely no evidence that I loathe your God, except for the fact that I don't share your specific interpretation of the Bible."

Rhology claimed that “God said you do”, to which I replied that this statement is exactly his specific interpretation of the Bible, which is not shared by a large number of other Christians.

After running around the houses for a bit in true apologetics style, I pointed out these diverse interpretations pose a significant difficulty for non-Christians in terms of understanding Christianity.

I therefore asked explicitly what had been implicit in the discussion to that point: what metric should one use to discern the accuracy of particular interpretations of the Bible?

You then started asking me about ice cream flavours, despite the fact that I have consistently explained to you that I don't view religious belief as equivalent to ice cream flavours.

You now claim, quite late in the game, that I “have zero rationale nor reason outside of your own mind to take any more interest in my religious preferences than you do my ice cream preferences.”

The problem for you – and the confusion for me – is that this has no bearing on the question on what metric one should use to discern the accuracy of particular interpretations of the Bible.

If you have such a way of discerning the true gospel, why are you unwilling to share it? One would have thought that you would be anxious to help bring people closer to God; rather than to turn them away with scorn.

Coram Deo said...
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Coram Deo said...

If you think that then you've obviously not been following the line of argumentation. Please do try to keep up.

Allow me to bring you up to speed.

I pointed out that you and Brabble act/function as your own gods; to wit you are your own personal ultimate authority, an observation to which you stridently objected.

Rho followed your objection by rightly pointing out that you do, in fact, function in practice as your own ultimate authority.

I followed your objection to his comment by pointing out the exact same thing yet again.

The conversation from that point, such as it has been, has served to highlight the point that the questions you are asking are illogical and incoherent from your own perspective because from within your worldview, such as it is, each individual is an autonomous, private ultimate authority.

I'm surprised that you still haven't grasped this simple fact.

Because each person is ultimate, each individual's private interpretations, opinions, and preferences are ultimate and extend only to themselves and can hold no true meaning someone else, apart from that other ultimate entity deciding that he might prefer to incorporate certain opinions, ideas, concepts into his own private worldview, or that he might prefer not to do so, based upon his own ultimacy.

This is why from your perspective my religious preference should logically be roughly the epistemological equivalent of my ice cream preference they are both "true" to me personally, but to you not so much, which is to be expected.

Yet you want to force (or persuade) me to show the "trueness" of my own private ultimacy, to which you from your own private ultimacy can sit as judge, jury, and executioner and reject out of hand, since you are your own ultimate authority.

One preference or another might be more or less interesting to you at the moment, but from within your worldview neither can be logically/coherently shown to be truly more or less important than the other since from within your worldview they're only matters of subjective individual opinion.

When I exercise my ultimate authority not to play by the rules of your ultimate authority you become agitated and pretend that I'm dodging your argument, when in fact I'm playing by your own rules by acting as my own ultimate authority.

I've been internally critiquing your own worldview for dozens of comments now by inserting myself into it and remaining logically, coherently, and epistemologically consistent with it, which is something you yourself refuse to do.

You don't and can't remain logically, coherently, and epistemologically consistent within your own worldview which demonstrates that you retain an illogical, incoherent, and epistemologically untenable worldview.

Can you see it yet?

In Christ,
CD

Rhology said...

One last time, then: what metric do you use to decide that your interpretation of your own comment is more accurate than another skeptic who doesn't share your specific beliefs?

Either you have one, or you don't. If you do have one, I'd have thought that you want to share it both with other skeptics and non-skeptics alike, in order to help them come to truth.

But perhaps you don't have any metric at all. That would be funny, wouldn't it? So very, very funny.

David said...

Paul C,

The problem is that Alan and CD do not have an answer to your question. Hence, the need to evade and digress.

Coram Deo said...

Rho,

I left another comment to Paul C. that seems to have not been published. Could you check your spam filter?

In Him,
CD

Rhology said...

Paul C and David:

You guys are funny.

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