There are
other excellent collections of such things
out there. These are some notions I thought of myself.
Romans 7 refers to Paul's life as a redeemed, regenerate man.
Here are six arguments to that effect.
Why does Jesus teach His disciples to pray in the following way?
Luke 11:4 "And forgive us our sins, for we ourselves also forgive everyone who is indebted to us."
What sins, if those who are walking in the Spirit don't sin? Is this only a prayer that brand new believers are supposed to pray? Where does Jesus indicate anything of the kind?
Why does James 3:2 say "for we all stumble in many ways"?
Why does Solomon say in 1 Kings 8:46 that "there is no man who does not sin"?
Why does Paul refer to "my brothers" in 1 Cor 1:10-12, when he is rebuking their quarrelling?
If only people who stop sinning entirely reach Heaven, what is 1 Corinthians 3:9-15 about?
The Scripture mentions numerous times that God chastens His children. Does He chasten people when they don't sin? If chastening as sons occurs after sin, how is it that they are referred to as children at that time? Why doesn't it refer to apostates or sinners or de-regenerated people, who once belonged to God but have fallen into condemnation because they sinned?
What do Hebrews 12:4-13 mean?
Philippians 2:27 Indeed he was ill, near to death. But God had mercy on him, and not only on him but on me also, lest I should have sorrow upon sorrow. 28 I am the more eager to send him, therefore, that you may rejoice at seeing him again, and that I may be less anxious. 29 So receive him in the Lord with all joy, and honor such men, 30 for he nearly died for the work of Christ, risking his life to complete what was lacking in your service to me.
--The church lacked in its service to Paul. But he is still treating them like Christians.
--Paul is sending him so that he may be less anxious. Yet we are supposed to cast ALL our anxieties on Christ (Paul even says so later in the book - 4:6). Maybe Paul was unregenerate when he was writing the Epistle to the Philippians.
Why does Paul differentiate between the righteousness of his own that comes from the law and the righteousness that he has by faith (in Philipppians 3) if
1) it's so much better to be free from sin in this life through our own perfect obedience?
2) he had achieved perfect obedience to the law?
Why does he go on to say what he says in v12? Should we consider you more spiritually advanced than the Apostle Paul?
What do verses 13-16 mean? Why does he say that those who are mature should think that way? Wouldn't someone who has achieved perfection already be mature?
Philippians 3:17 - 17 Brothers, join in imitating me, and keep your eyes on those who walk according to the example you have in us.
Why should these BROTHERS join in imitating Paul? That's an invitation to keep growing to maturity. Isn't a perfect person already mature? Isn't a lack of maturity sinful? Why does he call them BROTHERS?
What do Philippians 4:2-3 mean?
Why is it that Paul is so certain that these women's names are in the book of life if
-election is false?
-they are in the middle of dissent?
What do Philippians 4:14-16 mean? Are those other churches that neglected to provide for the scanty needs of an apostle of the Lord entirely false churches, entirely populated by unregenerate people?
Is it not a sin to doubt? What does Jude 22 mean, in that case?
What does Acts 15:6-11 mean, especially the parts boldfaced here?
6The apostles and the elders came together to look into this matter. 7After there had been much debate, Peter stood up and said to them, “Brethren, you know that in the early days God made a choice among you, that by my mouth the Gentiles would hear the word of the gospel and believe. 8“And God, who knows the heart, testified to them giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He also did to us; 9and He made no distinction between us and them, cleansing their hearts by faith. 10“Now therefore why do you put God to the test by placing upon the neck of the disciples
a yoke which neither our fathers nor we have been able to bear? 11“But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they also are.”
What is it about circumcision that is a yoke that the apostles said they weren't able to bear? Why are the commands of the NT more bearable than OT laws?
Why does 2 Peter 1:8 say the following?
For if these qualities are yours
and are increasing, they render you neither useless nor unfruitful in the true knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ.
How can the aforementioned qualities increase if one is supposed to be perfect already?
Why does Paul pray for the Colossians in Col 1:9-10 if they are NOT yet walking in a manner worthy of the Lord, fully pleasing to Him, or bearing fruit in every good work?
As a matter of fact, why does Paul still treat the Corinthian church, Galatian church, and all thsee other churches as actual churches filled with actual Christians if they were sinfully allowing these divisions, sinful doctrines, and negligent behaviors among them? Why didn't he tell them all that they were headed to Hell?
The Bible says that we are to keep careful watch over ourselves and our doctrine. When you fail to realise that you have sinned, such as when you speed while driving, you have failed to do what you were supposed to do. Even if you repent immediately it doesn't matter because you keep telling me you are perfect and wallking in the Spirit.
You are supposed to have perfect joy at all times. How are you in perfect joy right now? And what will you do if you ever fall into depression?
Do you never waste even a nanosecond of time? Do you always use all of every second of every day for God's glory in all ways?
Do you always use all of your money and every single cent of your money in a way that brings the maximum amount of glory to God?
Notice how the author of Psalm 119 expresses many times the fact that he keeps the commandments of God, but then also expresses his failings. How do we explain this other than by saying that he is a righteous man who sometimes sins? Specifically:
Ps 119:136 - My eyes shed streams of water, because they do not keep Your law.
Ps 119:176 - I have gone astray like a lost sheep; seek Your servant, for I do not forget Your commandments.
In what way is the New Covenant better than the Old Covenant? How are the new promises better than the old?
What does it mean that Christ has died for all sins once for all?
What does Hebrews 4:16 mean? Why do believers need to find mercy and grace on an ongoing basis?
What does Hebrews 5:1-3 mean?
Why doesn't the author of Hebrews call the recipients of the epistle to be re-regenerated because of the faults in them as listed in Hebrews 5:11-14?
What is a "dead work", as in Hebrews 6:1 and 9:14? Why is it set in opposition to faith?
Do you teach and confess that it is impossible to renew the one who falls away to repentance again, as in Hebrews 6:4-6? Or do you teach, contrary to that passage, that those who fall away into an unregenerate state can come back to God?
Why is the author of Hebrews convinced of better things concerning the recipients, since they love Him, even though they are guilty of these things he just mentioned? Is not failing to realise the full assurance of hope until the end a sin as well?
Why does the author of Hebrews use the example of a unilateral covenant in which Abraham had no part, no role to fulfill, in this discussion in Hebrews 6:13-20?
If the law made nothing perfect, as in Hebrews 7:19 and 10:1, why do you think we can be made perfect thru obedience to the law now?
Wasn't the epistle to the Hebrews written post-Jesus' coming? Why didn't he say anything about that at that point?
What does Hebrews 10:10 mean? Were all of the recipients on their deathbeds, such that he was 100% sure they had all persevered until the end already?
What does Hebrews 10:18 mean?
Did Abraham, who is said to have been justified by his faith in Genesis 15:6, become un-justified when he lied to Abimelech? When he took Hagar into his bed so as to jump-start the promise that he would have a son?
Was Lot un-justified when he offered the men of Sodom his daughters? If so, why is he called righteous in 2 Peter?
If Jeremiah and Job had died right after their complaints against God, would they have gone to Hell?
If Peter had been stabbed by a Roman soldier right after cutting off Malchus' ear, would he have gone to Hell?
Which between Barnabas and Paul reverted to an unregenerate state when they separated over the question of whether John Mark would accompany them on their mission?
Why didn't Jesus call Philip to repent and be re-regenerated when he lacked faith in John 14:8?
Why didn't Jesus call the disciples to repent and be re-regenerated after His resurrection but before His ascension, given that they had doubted His resurrection?
What does Romans 12:3 mean?
What do Galatians 2:16-17 mean?
Why can it be that there are those who preach Christ out of selfish ambition in Philippians 1:15-18?
Can one who is perfect be conspicuous in failing to be mentioned in the love he ought to have?
Paul singled out Timothy in Philippians 2:20 - "20 For I have no one like him, who will be genuinely concerned for your welfare."
And then v25 - I have thought it necessary to send to you Epaphroditus my brother and fellow worker and fellow soldier, and your messenger and minister to my need, 26 for he has been longing for you all and has been distressed because you heard that he was ill.
Is it not falling short of perfection to be surpassed in the excellence of love for a church by someone else?
