How did the pious Jewish man living in 50 BC know that Isaiah or 2 Chronicles were inspired Scripture, ie, were in the Canon of Scripture?
RCs and EOs criticise the Sola Scriptura (SS) position by questioning, as Orthodox just did, how SS-ers can have a Canon of Scr.
But SS-ers respond by pointing out the canonisation process of the OT. W/o an infallible authority that RCC and EOC posit, God brought His people to understand the Canon of the OT. Given the many epistemological problems inherent in the Sola Ecclesia/Infallible Interpreter model, it makes a ton more sense to see God handling the canonisation process of the NT in a similar way to the way He did the OT Canon - passively, subtlely leading the people of God to recognise it.
SE-ers will then splutter, "But, but, by what authority do you have the NT Canon?" as if the question were not just answered. We respond w/ the White Question - how did a pious Jewish man in 50 BC know that Isaiah or 2 Chronicles was inspired, ie, was in the Canon of Scripture?
Clearly, he knew it b/c God had mysteriously and passively led His people to recognise it. They had no infallible interper.
If you say they DID have one, then it ends up being the same "infall interper" who also taught the Corban Rule; they were not infall at all.
The White Question reveals that you don't have a good objection to the SS conception of how the NT Canon came about.
And RCC keeps saying that you need an infall interper to have an infall list of infall teachings. But Rome itself has no infall list of infall teachings. Besides the fact that Rome's 1st infall Canon of Scr is not until the 16th cent, they STILL have no infall list of all their infall teachings.
EOC is right behind - Orthodox is on record as completely unable to even give a Canon of Scr, much less a full Canon of his church's infall teachings.
So, SS-ers in the know are right to just laugh when presented w/ these lame arguments based on the unknowability of the Canon.